Nessie wrote: ↑Sat Aug 15, 2026 7:11 am
Why are you so accepting of the evidence of mass shootings of entire Jewish communities, as partisans in Eastern Europe, but not of the evidence of the mass gassings of Jews from elsewhere in Europe?
If the physical evidence for an alleged crime that - HAS TO EXIST - for the crime to have
actually happened - DOES NOT EXIST - then the alleged crime obviously - DID NOT HAPPEN.
Ergo: The orthodox “pure extermination center” story is - A PROVEN, NONSENSICAL BIG-LIE.
If the physical evidence for a claim that - HAS TO EXIST - in order for the claim to be true - DOES NOT EXIST - then that claim is false.
just how often were non-Jewish partisans counted within the 'Jews' bucket?
For example, if a German unit captures 500 partisans led by 20 or so Jews, would they not be heavily-incentivized (and/or assuming enough) to claim the entire group as 'Jews'?
How often did this happen?
I say it happened a lot, which would explain why some of the execution numbers provided by the Einsatzgruppen were over inflated. Himmler had written a note in 1941, that stated "Jewish Question | To Be Exterminated as Partisans". In 1942 he sent a report to Hitler that stated 363,211 Jews had been executed over a 4 month period. The report also listed bandits and helpers, but we cannot be sure how many of them were Jewish, or how many of those reported as Jews, were Jews. What we also know, from various reports, is that the aim was to rid the whole of Eastern Europe of Jews and make it "Juden-frei".
Is Nessie a revisionist now? The admission is that Jews were heavily conflated with non-Jews and so the 363,211 figure (already only a fraction of Jews evidently present there; see the Meldung 51 thread) is even less of an indication of a total extermination policy than once previously thought?
Forensics lack both graves and chambers—only victors' ink stains history's page.
just how often were non-Jewish partisans counted within the 'Jews' bucket?
For example, if a German unit captures 500 partisans led by 20 or so Jews, would they not be heavily-incentivized (and/or assuming enough) to claim the entire group as 'Jews'?
How often did this happen?
I say it happened a lot, which would explain why some of the execution numbers provided by the Einsatzgruppen were over inflated. Himmler had written a note in 1941, that stated "Jewish Question | To Be Exterminated as Partisans". In 1942 he sent a report to Hitler that stated 363,211 Jews had been executed over a 4 month period. The report also listed bandits and helpers, but we cannot be sure how many of them were Jewish, or how many of those reported as Jews, were Jews. What we also know, from various reports, is that the aim was to rid the whole of Eastern Europe of Jews and make it "Juden-frei".
Is Nessie a revisionist now? The admission is that Jews were heavily conflated with non-Jews and so the 363,211 figure (already only a fraction of Jews evidently present there; see the Meldung 51 thread) is even less of an indication of a total extermination policy than once previously thought?
No, since, if you read a standard history of the EG, you see it widely accepted that they over inflated figures. I see you dodged my point about making Eastern Europe Jew free, when revisionists, with no evidence, suggest the Nazis were filling it with millions of Jews.
Sanity Check - "Thus, currently revisionists can console themselves by affirming their incredulity..."
