https://www.ns-archiv.de/verfolgung/kor ... r-kurz.php
Some parts of this have been used to argue for the orthodox position on the holocaust. The relevant bits:
You can see the HC blog make it's case using the short version here:The reduction of Jewry in Europe is thus likely to amount to 4 million heads.
...
Overall, European Jewry is likely to have lost almost half of its existence since 1933, i.e. in the first decade of the National Socialist development of power. Of this, only about half, i.e. a quarter of the total European stock of 1937, has flowed to the other continents.
https://holocaustcontroversies.blogspot ... rherr.html
The argument from these lines in the short version in a nutshell is that if there is a reduction in Europe's Jews by 4 million and only 2 million flowed to other countries, then that means the only explanation for the remaining missing 2 million is that they are dead.
My impression is that the "flowing" seems to be referring to emigration and the rest could be referring to evacuation (combined with other things such as mortality). What does everyone else here think?