This is followed by his assertion that Churchill's exterminating attack is indeed genocidal:
After rebuttals from both Archie and I (30/12/2025 and 31/12/2025 respectively) that Bombsaway was undermining the modern Nuremberg consensus, and after Nessie had offered up a non-genocidal interpretation in the slop-forum (31/12/2025 timestamp 1), Bombsaway then admits (31/12/2025 timestamp 2) a second interpretation is possible, yet doubles down by asserting a priori yet again it indeed was a genocide:
This, my friends, is called having your cake and eating it too.bombsaway wrote: ↑Wed Dec 31, 2025 6:49 pm A stated aim of the bombings was to harm German industrial production, therefore Nessie's reading is also possible.
But let's assume it was about killing people. The goal was to win the war and it helped them win the war substantially. There was a valid military objective to the genocide, it saved lives in the long run etc.
This silly Churchill gambit is bombsaway's attempt to avoid this double-standard trap. He's trying to be "consistent," but I don't think he's thought this through.Archie wrote: ↑Sat May 10, 2025 6:13 pm There are double standards galore here since exterminationist language in other contexts is routinely dismissed as hyperbolic. It entirely depends on which groups are involved. See the article below for example on the exterminationist song "Kill the Boer!" which blacks chant in South Africa. Is this proof of "white genocide" in South Africa? The mainstream media assures us it is not. That's just a "conspiracy theory." The language in the song "should not be taken literally." In this case. But if Goebbels had led such chants, that would be exhibit A in Holocaust proofs.
https://www.nytimes.com/2023/08/02/worl ... -song.html
Bro, I explicitly said "The reason I think Churchill was referring to killing civilians en masse (my definition of genocide) is because these aims were clearly part of British doctrine."i) Himmler's Ausrottung must be perceived genocidally and anything else is an issue, meanwhile
ii) Churchill's Exterminating Attack will be permitted to have multiple interpretations simultaneously so I can't be pinned down, and despite me doubling down that it's a genocide therefore so is Himmler
This is ridiculous.bombsaway wrote: ↑Wed Dec 31, 2025 6:33 pmWhen has the victorious side ever been prosecuted? Don't understand this line at all. This is not evidence of a conspiracy to fabricate or suppress evidence.Archie wrote: ↑Tue Dec 30, 2025 9:47 pm
Here we see a curiously unorthodox maneuver from BA. Throwing Churchill under the bus like this does not fit well with the usual Anglo-American triumphalist accounts of WWII and Nuremberg since implicitly this admits that both sides were war criminals but that only one side was prosecuted (the side that lost). It seems to me this feeds dangerously into revisionist narratives about the illegitimacy of Nuremberg.
Glad to see bombsaway finally calling out his posts for what they are.
You replied but you did not meaningfully address it.bombsaway wrote: ↑Sat Jan 03, 2026 8:01 pmBro, I explicitly said "The reason I think Churchill was referring to killing civilians en masse (my definition of genocide) is because these aims were clearly part of British doctrine."i) Himmler's Ausrottung must be perceived genocidally and anything else is an issue, meanwhile
ii) Churchill's Exterminating Attack will be permitted to have multiple interpretations simultaneously so I can't be pinned down, and despite me doubling down that it's a genocide therefore so is Himmler
Are you this daft? My belief that it is genocide, that Churchill supported a policy of genocide, is evident through the documents, and then my definition of genocide, provided above.
I also said why I thought Himmler meant Ausrottung genocidally. He says it means killing, and was talking about killing women and children, en masse you're just ignoring this point. Motivated reasoning also filters out evidence which doesn't support your case?
I did respond to Archie. There obviously is a double standard, one that is true any conflict where one side is vanquished.
This is ridiculous.bombsaway wrote: ↑Wed Dec 31, 2025 6:33 pmWhen has the victorious side ever been prosecuted? Don't understand this line at all. This is not evidence of a conspiracy to fabricate or suppress evidence.Archie wrote: ↑Tue Dec 30, 2025 9:47 pm
Here we see a curiously unorthodox maneuver from BA. Throwing Churchill under the bus like this does not fit well with the usual Anglo-American triumphalist accounts of WWII and Nuremberg since implicitly this admits that both sides were war criminals but that only one side was prosecuted (the side that lost). It seems to me this feeds dangerously into revisionist narratives about the illegitimacy of Nuremberg.
So what if Nuremberg was hypocritical and biased? I'll admit this is indeed circumstantial evidence for the conspiracy you believe in, but it is exceedingly weak circumstantial evidence. To me it's like saying you should believe the Holocaust happened because the Nazis were anti semitic. Maybe that's enough for some people, but there are dumb revisionists too.Archie wrote: ↑Sun Jan 04, 2026 3:32 amYou replied but you did not meaningfully address it.bombsaway wrote: ↑Sat Jan 03, 2026 8:01 pmBro, I explicitly said "The reason I think Churchill was referring to killing civilians en masse (my definition of genocide) is because these aims were clearly part of British doctrine."i) Himmler's Ausrottung must be perceived genocidally and anything else is an issue, meanwhile
ii) Churchill's Exterminating Attack will be permitted to have multiple interpretations simultaneously so I can't be pinned down, and despite me doubling down that it's a genocide therefore so is Himmler
Are you this daft? My belief that it is genocide, that Churchill supported a policy of genocide, is evident through the documents, and then my definition of genocide, provided above.
I also said why I thought Himmler meant Ausrottung genocidally. He says it means killing, and was talking about killing women and children, en masse you're just ignoring this point. Motivated reasoning also filters out evidence which doesn't support your case?
I did respond to Archie. There obviously is a double standard, one that is true any conflict where one side is vanquished.
This is ridiculous.
"When has the victorious side ever been prosecuted?" Uh, this is a problem revisionists have been pointing out for decades. That Nuremberg was victor's justice and was hypocritical and biased. This is Revisionism 101 stuff.
Are you new here?
Don’t you get it yet, Archie?
Maybe he will drop by again one of these days but it's impossible to say when. There's a decent chance he still lurks (I know he used to monitor the old forum religiously even though he hadn't posted in years). He currently posts some at Skeptic Forum. He was active on RODOH in 2024 and continued here, especially in the first few months. Perhaps not coincidently these periods were when the numbers were relatively favorable for the anti-revisionist side (as not all the revisionists had rejoined). I would definitely like to recruit some better talent on the anti-revisionist side, but the "high-end" Holocaust defenders do not seem eager to test the waters here even though nothing is stopping them and they've been complaining for years about "censorship" on CODOH. Some of them might have simply gotten tired with the whole debating-the-H-online scene (many have been at it for over 20 years) and there don't seem to be any up-and-comers to carry the torch. (I had high hopes for CJ but, alas, he was a bust). They also might have some concern about giving CODOH a lot of traffic and activity as that would ultimately help us (unless they actually got the better of us in the exchanges). Perhaps the logic is that having Nessie or bombsaway blow some smoke is thought to be sufficient.