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Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 12:06 pm
by Callafangers
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:54 amTo answer your question, they said that you had to consider the context first and foremost, which was a context of fighting against partisans, and that by killing the whole family, they were preventing the children from becoming partisans themselves and fighting against them. That, therefore, it had nothing to do with the Holocaust because they were talking about partisans.
It's possible they were discussing the Sonthofen speeches which Himmler gave to an audience of Wehrmacht generals almost a year after those speeches at Posen. In these speeches (Sonthofen), Himmler is much more explicit with homicidal language but he's speaking more specifically about partisan activity (e.g. related to Warsaw ghetto), and felt a need to justify himself for having been more harsh (e.g. killing women/children) than what the Wehrmacht was known for.

As for the Posen speeches, and particularly the quote I provided regarding "every Party member", it is clear he is not talking just about partisans here -- he is describing Jewish policy as a whole, hence the reference to the Party program (applies to all Jews under German control, not just partisans), overall Jewish evacuation policy, and emphasis on removing Jews from German lands (the "body of the German people").

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 1:10 pm
by Monsieur Sceptique
Callafangers wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 12:06 pm
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:54 amTo answer your question, they said that you had to consider the context first and foremost, which was a context of fighting against partisans, and that by killing the whole family, they were preventing the children from becoming partisans themselves and fighting against them. That, therefore, it had nothing to do with the Holocaust because they were talking about partisans.
It's possible they were discussing the Sonthofen speeches which Himmler gave to an audience of Wehrmacht generals almost a year after those speeches at Posen. In these speeches (Sonthofen), Himmler is much more explicit with homicidal language but he's speaking more specifically about partisan activity (e.g. related to Warsaw ghetto), and felt a need to justify himself for having been more harsh (e.g. killing women/children) than what the Wehrmacht was known for.

As for the Posen speeches, and particularly the quote I provided regarding "every Party member", it is clear he is not talking just about partisans here -- he is describing Jewish policy as a whole, hence the reference to the Party program (applies to all Jews under German control, not just partisans), overall Jewish evacuation policy, and emphasis on removing Jews from German lands (the "body of the German people").
Ok i see

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 2:29 pm
by Wahrheitssucher
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:35 am
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:06 am
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 10:31 am
I repeat once again, I am somewhere in between.
…It also demonstrates the complexity of the debate. My goal is to know which side to take.
I do not believe in the Holocaust or disbelieve in the Holocaust; in reality, I no longer know whether one side or the other is right. That's why I'm here, to find out.
You write: “…I do not believe in the Holocaust or disbelieve in the Holocaust…”

I suggest it would serve you to FIRST define what you claim you are neither believing or disbelieving.

…As it now stands, for intelligently and reasonably doubting, questioning and even empirically refuting those particular aspects of ‘the holocaust’ narrative, people are smeared, targeted and persecuted as ‘deniers’.

I ask you: in your opinion is that either fair or justified?

SUMMARY:
You need to first define what is ‘the holocaust’ that you claim you are currently neutral on.
It is a pseudo-historical term that is vague, imprecise and covers a very wide range of events and accusations.
You need to be more precise.
So i will define it. I would define the Holocaust as the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting.
• On the question of discrimination, this is a fact, as shown by the Nuremberg Protocols.
• As for the gas chambers, I doubt the plausibility of such an undertaking and the technical feasibility of such an undertaking, particularly the underlying logic. I think there should be a scientific debate involving different sciences on this issue.
• On the question of the Holocaust by shooting, I think it is entirely scientifically possible that such an undertaking took place, but I think that in order to determine whether such an undertaking took place, we must first know what type of operation these operations were carried out as part of (anti-partisan or otherwise).
Thanks for your reply.

First, you didn’t answer THIS question: “…As it now stands, for intelligently and reasonably doubting, questioning and even empirically refuting those particular aspects of ‘the holocaust’ narrative, people are smeared, targeted and persecuted as ‘deniers’.
I ask you: in your opinion is that either fair or justified?”

I pose it to you again as I think it gets to the heart of the cause for an objective, honest, reasonable historical re-evaluation of this quasi-religious ‘holocaust’ shibboleth.
It also reformulates your approach into what I think is a more rational way: i.e. I’m suggesting this shouldn’t be about ‘belief’ or ‘faith’ and ‘disbelief’ or ‘denial’.

If you are open to constructive criticism, I also suggest to you that your definition — and therefore your channel of investigation — is still too vague and imprecise and therefore may not lead you to an accurate understanding.

You defined it as: “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting”.

- But that should EXCLUDE any and ALL jews who were shot for any other reason.
- It would ALSO exclude any and ALL jews who intentionally or unintentionally died of hardship, disease, malnutrition or any other cause.
- It should also exclude the discrimination based on Nuremburg laws as these have NO connection to “gassing or shooting”.

Your definition also starts from a premise for which you appear to have not presented any evidence: viz. ‘systematic extermination’. There is voluminous evidence that refutes that compulsory perception and understanding. E.g. to give just one rather obvious one, the WW2 experiences of Tobias Rawet, Viktor Frankl, Otto Frank and his daughters, etc., etc. These are people who themselves passed through what is currently referred to as ‘the holocaust’ and yet were well cared for and enabled to live. They also witnessed other Jews being enabled to survive ‘the holocaust’ and Frankl was actually tasked with enabling ill jews to survive it!!!
E.g. Then there is the testimony of those participants of the Conference at Wannsee who survived the war.
See here: https://codohforum.com/viewtopic.php?t=370
Etc., etc., etc.

Do you see?

You first have to provide evidence for a proposed “..systematic extermination of European Jewish populations”.

Yet you appear to be STARTING from that position, which is therefore possibly starting from a false premise.
That you are doing that appears to be so as your definition stated with “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations…”

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:27 pm
by Monsieur Sceptique
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 2:29 pm
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:35 am
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:06 am

You write: “…I do not believe in the Holocaust or disbelieve in the Holocaust…”

I suggest it would serve you to FIRST define what you claim you are neither believing or disbelieving.

…As it now stands, for intelligently and reasonably doubting, questioning and even empirically refuting those particular aspects of ‘the holocaust’ narrative, people are smeared, targeted and persecuted as ‘deniers’.

I ask you: in your opinion is that either fair or justified?

SUMMARY:
You need to first define what is ‘the holocaust’ that you claim you are currently neutral on.
It is a pseudo-historical term that is vague, imprecise and covers a very wide range of events and accusations.
You need to be more precise.
So i will define it. I would define the Holocaust as the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting.
• On the question of discrimination, this is a fact, as shown by the Nuremberg Protocols.
• As for the gas chambers, I doubt the plausibility of such an undertaking and the technical feasibility of such an undertaking, particularly the underlying logic. I think there should be a scientific debate involving different sciences on this issue.
• On the question of the Holocaust by shooting, I think it is entirely scientifically possible that such an undertaking took place, but I think that in order to determine whether such an undertaking took place, we must first know what type of operation these operations were carried out as part of (anti-partisan or otherwise).
Thanks for your reply.

First, you didn’t answer THIS question: “…As it now stands, for intelligently and reasonably doubting, questioning and even empirically refuting those particular aspects of ‘the holocaust’ narrative, people are smeared, targeted and persecuted as ‘deniers’.
I ask you: in your opinion is that either fair or justified?”

I pose it to you again as I think it gets to the heart of the cause for an objective, honest, reasonable historical re-evaluation of this quasi-religious ‘holocaust’ shibboleth.
It also reformulates your approach into what I think is a more rational way: i.e. I’m suggesting this shouldn’t be about ‘belief’ or ‘faith’ and ‘disbelief’ or ‘denial’.

If you are open to constructive criticism, I also suggest to you that your definition — and therefore your channel of investigation — is still too vague and imprecise and therefore may not lead you to an accurate understanding.

You defined it as: “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting”.

- But that should EXCLUDE any and ALL jews who were shot for any other reason.
- It would ALSO exclude any and ALL jews who intentionally or unintentionally died of hardship, disease, malnutrition or any other cause.
- It should also exclude the discrimination based on Nuremburg laws as these have NO connection to “gassing or shooting”.

Your definition also starts from a premise for which you appear to have not presented any evidence: viz. ‘systematic extermination’. There is voluminous evidence that refutes that compulsory perception and understanding. E.g. to give just one rather obvious one, the WW2 experiences of Tobias Rawet, Viktor Frankl, Otto Frank and his daughters, etc., etc. These are people who themselves passed through what is currently referred to as ‘the holocaust’ and yet were well cared for and enabled to live. They also witnessed other Jews being enabled to survive ‘the holocaust’ and Frankl was actually tasked with enabling ill jews to survive it!!!
E.g. Then there is the testimony of those participants of the Conference at Wannsee who survived the war.
See here: https://codohforum.com/viewtopic.php?t=370
Etc., etc., etc.

Do you see?

You first have to provide evidence for a proposed “..systematic extermination of European Jewish populations”.

Yet you appear to be STARTING from that position, which is therefore possibly starting from a false premise.
That you are doing that appears to be so as your definition stated with “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations…”
No if you want my answer about the red part.
To answer your question, I have never suggested that discrimination was part of the Holocaust. Please do not attribute such thoughts to me. I exclude the categories you mentioned.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:39 pm
by Wahrheitssucher
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:27 pm
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 2:29 pm
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:35 am
So i will define it. I would define the Holocaust as the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting.
On the question of discrimination, this is a fact, as shown by the Nuremberg Protocols.
• As for the gas chambers, I doubt the plausibility of such an undertaking and the technical feasibility of such an undertaking, particularly the underlying logic. I think there should be a scientific debate involving different sciences on this issue.
• On the question of the Holocaust by shooting, I think it is entirely scientifically possible that such an undertaking took place, but I think that in order to determine whether such an undertaking took place, we must first know what type of operation these operations were carried out as part of (anti-partisan or otherwise).
Thanks for your reply.

First, you didn’t answer THIS question: “…As it now stands, for intelligently and reasonably doubting, questioning and even empirically refuting those particular aspects of ‘the holocaust’ narrative, people are smeared, targeted and persecuted as ‘deniers’.
I ask you: in your opinion is that either fair or justified?”

I pose it to you again as I think it gets to the heart of the cause for an objective, honest, reasonable historical re-evaluation of this quasi-religious ‘holocaust’ shibboleth.
It also reformulates your approach into what I think is a more rational way: i.e. I’m suggesting this shouldn’t be about ‘belief’ or ‘faith’ and ‘disbelief’ or ‘denial’.

If you are open to constructive criticism, I also suggest to you that your definition — and therefore your channel of investigation — is still too vague and imprecise and therefore may not lead you to an accurate understanding.

You DID define it as: “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting”.

- But that should EXCLUDE any and ALL jews who were shot for any other reason.
- It would ALSO exclude any and ALL jews who intentionally or unintentionally died of hardship, disease, malnutrition or any other cause.
- It should also exclude the discrimination based on Nuremburg laws as these have NO connection to “gassing or shooting”.

Your definition also starts from a premise for which you appear to have not presented any evidence: viz. ‘systematic extermination’. There is voluminous evidence that refutes that compulsory perception and understanding. E.g. to give just one rather obvious one, the WW2 experiences of Tobias Rawet, Viktor Frankl, Otto Frank and his daughters, etc., etc. These are people who themselves passed through what is currently referred to as ‘the holocaust’ and yet were well cared for and enabled to live. They also witnessed other Jews being enabled to survive ‘the holocaust’ and Frankl was actually tasked with enabling ill jews to survive it!!!
E.g. Then there is the testimony of those participants of the Conference at Wannsee who survived the war.
See here: https://codohforum.com/viewtopic.php?t=370
Etc., etc., etc.

Do you see?

You first have to provide evidence for a proposed “..systematic extermination of European Jewish populations”.

Yet you appear to be STARTING from that position, which is therefore possibly starting from a false premise.
That you are doing that appears to be so as your definition stated with “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations…”
No if you want my answer about the red part.
To answer your question, I have never suggested that discrimination was part of the Holocaust. Please do not attribute such thoughts to me. I exclude the categories you mentioned.
Thanks for answering the repeated question. I’m pleased to receive it.

1. You mentioned ‘discrimination’ under your reply to my point about needing to first define your terms.

2. I have not “ attributed” any thoughts to you, but only responded to what is written in your replies.

3. You haven’t responded to my point about your enquiry possibly starting from a false premise. Did you understand the point?

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 4:16 pm
by Monsieur Sceptique
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:39 pm
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:27 pm
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 2:29 pm
Thanks for your reply.

First, you didn’t answer THIS question: “…As it now stands, for intelligently and reasonably doubting, questioning and even empirically refuting those particular aspects of ‘the holocaust’ narrative, people are smeared, targeted and persecuted as ‘deniers’.
I ask you: in your opinion is that either fair or justified?”

I pose it to you again as I think it gets to the heart of the cause for an objective, honest, reasonable historical re-evaluation of this quasi-religious ‘holocaust’ shibboleth.
It also reformulates your approach into what I think is a more rational way: i.e. I’m suggesting this shouldn’t be about ‘belief’ or ‘faith’ and ‘disbelief’ or ‘denial’.

If you are open to constructive criticism, I also suggest to you that your definition — and therefore your channel of investigation — is still too vague and imprecise and therefore may not lead you to an accurate understanding.

You DID define it as: “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations (i.e. Ashkenazi Jews) by means of gassing or shooting”.

- But that should EXCLUDE any and ALL jews who were shot for any other reason.
- It would ALSO exclude any and ALL jews who intentionally or unintentionally died of hardship, disease, malnutrition or any other cause.
- It should also exclude the discrimination based on Nuremburg laws as these have NO connection to “gassing or shooting”.

Your definition also starts from a premise for which you appear to have not presented any evidence: viz. ‘systematic extermination’. There is voluminous evidence that refutes that compulsory perception and understanding. E.g. to give just one rather obvious one, the WW2 experiences of Tobias Rawet, Viktor Frankl, Otto Frank and his daughters, etc., etc. These are people who themselves passed through what is currently referred to as ‘the holocaust’ and yet were well cared for and enabled to live. They also witnessed other Jews being enabled to survive ‘the holocaust’ and Frankl was actually tasked with enabling ill jews to survive it!!!
E.g. Then there is the testimony of those participants of the Conference at Wannsee who survived the war.
See here: https://codohforum.com/viewtopic.php?t=370
Etc., etc., etc.

Do you see?

You first have to provide evidence for a proposed “..systematic extermination of European Jewish populations”.

Yet you appear to be STARTING from that position, which is therefore possibly starting from a false premise.
That you are doing that appears to be so as your definition stated with “…the systematic extermination of European Jewish populations…”
No if you want my answer about the red part.
To answer your question, I have never suggested that discrimination was part of the Holocaust. Please do not attribute such thoughts to me. I exclude the categories you mentioned.
Thanks for answering the repeated question. I’m pleased to receive it.

1. You mentioned ‘discrimination’ under your reply to my point about needing to first define your terms.

2. I have not “ attributed” any thoughts to you, but only responded to what is written in your replies.

3. You haven’t responded to my point about your enquiry possibly starting from a false premise. Did you understand the point?
You think I am reversing the burden of proof. I have merely quoted what historical orthodoxy says. You think I should first and foremost begin my research on whether the Holocaust actually happened or not? That is precisely why I am here.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 6:54 pm
by Wahrheitssucher
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 4:16 pm
Wahrheitssucher wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:39 pm
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 3:27 pm
No if you want my answer about the red part.
To answer your question, I have never suggested that discrimination was part of the Holocaust. Please do not attribute such thoughts to me. I exclude the categories you mentioned.
Thanks for answering the repeated question. I’m pleased to receive it.

1. You mentioned ‘discrimination’ under your reply to my point about needing to first define your terms.

2. I have not “ attributed” any thoughts to you, but only responded to what is written in your replies.

3. You haven’t responded to my point about your enquiry possibly starting from a false premise. Did you understand the point?
You think I am reversing the burden of proof. I have merely quoted what historical orthodoxy says.
Er… no. Not quite.
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 4:16 pm You think I should first and foremost begin my research on whether ‘the Holocaust’ actually happened or not? That is precisely why I am here.
Again, not quite.

1. despite what I tried to explain, you have reverted back to a vague, imprecise and unhelpful dichotomy.

2. You appear to me to have missed that point and have confirmed in my view that you ARE starting from a slightly false premise — one you appear to be unaware of. If that diagnosis is correct this will hamper your research and skew any conclusions you derive from it.

3. Plus some of the obvious problems with your definition that were highlighted have been ignored by you. You only excluded deaths of Jews from hardship, malnutrition and disease. And as they constitute a huge part of what are classified as ‘holocaust’ deaths, this makes you ‘ a denier’ in the eyes of the orthodoxy. I.e. you ALREADY don’t believe ‘the holocaust’ narrative.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Sun Dec 28, 2025 8:50 pm
by bombsaway
Callafangers wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 12:06 pm
Monsieur Sceptique wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 11:54 amTo answer your question, they said that you had to consider the context first and foremost, which was a context of fighting against partisans, and that by killing the whole family, they were preventing the children from becoming partisans themselves and fighting against them. That, therefore, it had nothing to do with the Holocaust because they were talking about partisans.
It's possible they were discussing the Sonthofen speeches which Himmler gave to an audience of Wehrmacht generals almost a year after those speeches at Posen. In these speeches (Sonthofen), Himmler is much more explicit with homicidal language but he's speaking more specifically about partisan activity (e.g. related to Warsaw ghetto), and felt a need to justify himself for having been more harsh (e.g. killing women/children) than what the Wehrmacht was known for.

As for the Posen speeches, and particularly the quote I provided regarding "every Party member", it is clear he is not talking just about partisans here -- he is describing Jewish policy as a whole, hence the reference to the Party program (applies to all Jews under German control, not just partisans), overall Jewish evacuation policy, and emphasis on removing Jews from German lands (the "body of the German people").

You notice how in the Sonthofen speeches he says this?
On 5 May 1944 Himmler explained to Generals in Sonthofen that perseverance in the bombing war has only been possible because the Jews in Germany have been discarded.[25]

The Jewish question has been solved within Germany itself and in general within the countries occupied by Germany. [...] You can understand how difficult it was for me to carry out this military order which I was given and which I implemented out of a sense of obedience and absolute conviction. If you say: 'we can understand as far as the men are concerned but not about the children', then I must remind you of what I said at the beginning. [...] In my view, we as Germans, however deeply we may feel in our hearts, are not entitled to allow a generation of avengers filled with hatred to grow up with whom our children and grandchildren will have to deal because we, too weak and cowardly, left it to them.


1944-05-25 - Heinrich Himmler - Rede vor Vertretern der deutschen Justiz in Kochem

Another question which was decisive for the inner security of the Reich and Europe, was the Jewish question. It was uncompromisingly solved after orders and rational recognition. I believe, gentlemen, that you know me well enough to know that I am not a bloodthirsty person; I am not a man who takes pleasure or joy when something rough must be done. However on the other hand, I have such good nerves and such a developed sense of duty – I can say that much for myself – that when I recognise something as necessary I can implement it without compromise. I have not considered myself entitled – this concerns especially the Jewish women and children – to allow the children to grow into the avengers who will then murder our children and our grandchildren. That would have been cowardly. Consequently the question was uncompromisingly resolved.
Do you maintain, as with the Posen speech that this is evidence of the women and children being spared? The same exact language is being used.

I should remind you that I haven't seen any revisionist that has taken your view about that part of the Posen speech. The most common argument seems to be viewing the killing of women and children as part of larger reprisal actions against partisans. But you explicitly argue that this is about all Jews.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:14 am
by Callafangers
bombsaway wrote: Sun Dec 28, 2025 8:50 pm You notice how in the Sonthofen speeches he says this?
On 5 May 1944 Himmler explained to Generals in Sonthofen that perseverance in the bombing war has only been possible because the Jews in Germany have been discarded.[25]

The Jewish question has been solved within Germany itself and in general within the countries occupied by Germany. [...] You can understand how difficult it was for me to carry out this military order which I was given and which I implemented out of a sense of obedience and absolute conviction. If you say: 'we can understand as far as the men are concerned but not about the children', then I must remind you of what I said at the beginning. [...] In my view, we as Germans, however deeply we may feel in our hearts, are not entitled to allow a generation of avengers filled with hatred to grow up with whom our children and grandchildren will have to deal because we, too weak and cowardly, left it to them.
Yes, he is describing a blanket anti-partisan policy approach, here, feeling a need to justify why [Jewish] children were also executed, which the Wehrmacht no doubt found horrifying. The key context at Sonthofen is specifically a military context of partisan networks -- this speech was to Wehrmacht generals, specifically, in a segment of the speech about anti-partisan tactics. The tie-in to Jewish policy overall is mentioned only insofar as the "uncompromising" nature and because clearing the ghettos as partisan "headquarters" was a necessity. One has to consider the questions important to the audience, here:
  • How are the activities of the SS relevant (to the Wehrmacht)?
  • Why are you (SS) known to execute women and children [of partisans], rather than just the men?
Thus, Himmler's focus on justifying his SS organization's support for Wehrmacht operations is central, here. He speaks separately about (1) the clearing of the ghettos (mentioned only in passing reference), and (2) the intense fighting against partisans these operations entailed. There is only evidence of child executions as relevant to the second topic (fighting partisans), made clear in subsequent speeches at Sonthofen and in comparison to speeches at Posen and official Final Solution policy on Jews.

Himmler finishes this segment on Jews in this same 5 May 1944 speech, with the following:
The Asian [Russian], in his advance from Asia [Russia], which you have to fend off at the front and are allowed to fend off, will not be able to set up an enemy at your back, neither among your own people nor as a serious danger - apart from small bandits - which always exist in the countries we occupy.
Clearly, the concern and emphasis is on how these Jewish-partisan hotbeds can be utilized by the enemy. Jews in ghettos as partisan headquarters (deeply connected to surrounding areas via black markets, underground tunnels, communications, etc.) were a threat -- Jews dispossessed and shipped into isolation much further East ("quarantine", per Goebbels) were not.
bombsaway wrote:
1944-05-25 - Heinrich Himmler - Rede vor Vertretern der deutschen Justiz in Kochem

Another question which was decisive for the inner security of the Reich and Europe, was the Jewish question. It was uncompromisingly solved after orders and rational recognition. I believe, gentlemen, that you know me well enough to know that I am not a bloodthirsty person; I am not a man who takes pleasure or joy when something rough must be done. However on the other hand, I have such good nerves and such a developed sense of duty – I can say that much for myself – that when I recognise something as necessary I can implement it without compromise. I have not considered myself entitled – this concerns especially the Jewish women and children – to allow the children to grow into the avengers who will then murder our children and our grandchildren. That would have been cowardly. Consequently the question was uncompromisingly resolved.
I have this same speech dated as 1944-05-24 (a day prior), here is a larger excerpt, emphases added:
Another question that was decisive for the internal security of the Reich and Europe was the Jewish question. It was solved without compromise according to orders and rational knowledge. I believe, gentlemen, that you know me well enough to know that I am not a bloodthirsty person and not a man who takes pleasure or fun in any task that he has to do. On the other hand, however, I have such good nerves and such a great sense of duty - I can claim this for myself - that when I recognize a matter as necessary, I carry it out without compromise. I did not consider myself entitled - this concerns Jewish women and children - to let the children grow up to be avengers who would then kill our fathers and our grandchildren. I would have considered that cowardly. Consequently, the question was resolved without compromise. At the moment, however - it is strange in this war - we are initially bringing 100,000, and later another 100,000, male Jews from Hungary into concentration camps, with whom we are building underground factories. But not one of them comes into the field of vision of the German people. But I am convinced that I would see things in a negative light for the front that has been built up in the east of the General Government if we had not solved the Jewish question there, if the ghetto in Lublin still existed and the huge ghetto with 500,000 people in Warsaw, the clearing of which, gentlemen, cost us five weeks of street fighting last year with armored cars and with all weapons, where we stormed around 700 houses in bunkers in the middle of this fenced-off ghetto. - Of course we have gangs. The Russians have them too. They're just as unpleasant with them. You can't take it tragically, you have to take it seriously. If you have courage, take action, take action prudently and sensibly, namely by being prepared, then gangs can never be a decisive danger. They never decide a war.
Clearly, Himmler is speaking about the response against partisan networks, specifically. The "uncompromising" approach is specifically targeting these networks, however Himmler believed that killing a partisan male and sparing his wife and children was an eventual threat as the children would become avengers upon Germany in the future. Himmler compares his own uncompromising approach to that of the Russians, who were "just as unpleasant" with their own gangs.

Notice also that Himmler has an opportunity here to mention or allude to actual Jewish extermination operations (at Reinhardt camps, i.e. 'gassing'), or a "liquidation" of the people in the ghettos. Instead, he mentions only the "clearing ["Bereinigung"] of [the Lublin/Warsaw ghettos]" but with focus on the military threat encountered (five weeks of street fighting, underground bunkers, etc.). He also mentions the Hungarian Jewish workers never "[coming] into the field of vision of the German people", which reinforces the priority of preventing Jewish influences affecting surrounding populations (Germans). Jews who could not reach outside networks or "poison" the German population were not among the threat being described, here.

These ghettos (in the General Government, in particular) were still connected to the surrounding areas in Poland (with black markets and partisan recruiting thriving in the major ghettos). These had to be addressed with brutal force but the partisans in these ghettos were not going to give up their "headquarters" easily. As these ghettos were being cleared, Jewish partisans fought tooth-and-nail to hold their position/headquarters, given the strategic importance.

All of those involved (and their family members, likely found together in these "bunkers") were executed, without compromise.

These executions were separate from the larger policy of Jewish evacuations ("Judenevakuierung") which were mentioned multiple times at Posen but are not mentioned at all at Sonthofen.
bombsaway wrote:Do you maintain, as with the Posen speech that this is evidence of the women and children being spared? The same exact language is being used.
That is a bit of a strawman. I have shown that the speech is an admission and explanation of women and children of Jews tied into partisan networks not being spared. Posen is a different audience, is explicitly about Jewish evacuations ("Judenevakuierung"), seven months prior, and clearly about Jewish policy more broadly (limited discussion of partisans). Sonthofen is about partisan activity and securing the rear, with mention of Jewish policy only insofar as it is directly relevant here.
bombsaway wrote:I should remind you that I haven't seen any revisionist that has taken your view about that part of the Posen speech. The most common argument seems to be viewing the killing of women and children as part of larger reprisal actions against partisans. But you explicitly argue that this is about all Jews.
You can keep mentioning what "other revisionists" have said/believed, bombsaway, it is irrelevant.

If I am wrong, point out the error. Otherwise, there is nothing else to say.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:31 am
by bombsaway
Callafangers wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:14 am
You can keep mentioning what "other revisionists" have said/believed, bombsaway, it is irrelevant.

If I am wrong, point out the error. Otherwise, there is nothing else to say.
You're dancing around the fact that identical language is used for the Posen speech and the ones where it's beyond debate that he's talking about killing

Another revisionist pointed this out to you here

viewtopic.php?p=8968#p8968

This is what I mean by your views not being shared by other revisionists. If what you were stating was as obvious as you say, they would agree with you. I think you know this is a questionable point though which is why as a response you say those speeches might be fabricated. I think that's the only way out --

btw I do agree with you that he is talking about all Jews, not just partisans, in the Posen speech but also beyond.

in 1944
The Jewish question has been solved within Germany itself and in general within the countries occupied by Germany. [...] You can understand how difficult it was for me to carry out this military order ...
Another question that was decisive for the internal security of the Reich and Europe was the Jewish question. It was solved without compromise according to orders and rational knowledge. I believe, gentlemen, that you know me well enough to know that I am not a bloodthirsty person...
Within Germany itself

Reich and Europe

Only the deus ex machina of conspirators fabricating the historical record in very sophisticated yet arbitrary ways can get you out of this and you hinted at this possibility in the other codoh thread.
Also worth noting is that, of the actual audio recordings I have been able to locate for the Sonthofen speeches, some (but not all) of the most 'incriminating' portions are absent (this may simply be due to issues with the tape, which were more common back then, but still very "convenient").
But on wikipedia you can hear Himmler saying these things.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:50 am
by Callafangers
bombsaway wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:31 am You're dancing around the fact that identical language is used for the Posen speech and the ones where it's beyond debate that he's talking about killing

Another revisionist pointed this out to you here

viewtopic.php?p=8968#p8968
And I responded to that post immediately in the same thread. In what way do you suppose this entails continuing disagreement between revisionists? Wetzelrad did not reply to my response, there, suggesting he either agrees or takes a neutral stance on the matter (or perhaps didn't have time to respond). Altogether, it's a far-reach for you to interpret this as a stark, persisting disagreement.
bombsaway wrote:If what you were stating was as obvious as you say, they would agree with you. I think you know this is a questionable point though which is why as a response you say those speeches might be fabricated. I think that's the only way out --
bombsaway, you are interpreting there being a disagreement when you have zero evidence of this. You assume that every revisionist member here who doesn't chime in to add "I agree!" necessarily disagrees. The fact that this is even one of your main arguments exposes that you lack anything compelling to add against my position.
bombsaway wrote:btw I do agree with you that he is talking about all Jews, not just partisans, in the Posen speech but also beyond.

in 1944
The Jewish question has been solved within Germany itself and in general within the countries occupied by Germany. [...] You can understand how difficult it was for me to carry out this military order ...
Another question that was decisive for the internal security of the Reich and Europe was the Jewish question. It was solved without compromise according to orders and rational knowledge. I believe, gentlemen, that you know me well enough to know that I am not a bloodthirsty person...
Within Germany itself

Reich and Europe
bombsaway, your writing is becoming less coherent with each post. Try to use complete sentences, at least.

Himmler's authority on Jewish policy extended beyond partisans and beyond the Eastern territories. He mentions broader Jewish policy and the "Jewish question" as such, but this is aside from the fact that his speech at Sonthofen was a much more specific presentation and context. It is no coincidence that Himmler discusses the battles inside Warsaw ghetto and the extent of partisan networks there (and in Lublin and other GG ghettos) in all instances where he discusses killing Jews (including women/children), in his Sonthofen speeches.
bombsaway wrote:Only the deus ex machina of conspirators fabricating the historical record in very sophisticated yet arbitrary ways can get you out of this and you hinted at this possibility in the other codoh thread.
So desperate for a red herring, are you? You seem bitter that you are now recognizing the reality of victor's justice and its judicial historiography that is suspicious by default. Yes, it certainly increases your burden of proof, especially since we have proven instances from all of the victorious powers of their complicity and complacence with fabrication of genocidal 'evidence' against Germany during and post-war.

In any case, I think that exterminationists have very often been lazy in their review of documents and language used therein. Thus, I am open to the possibility that a speech is genuine, when enough corroboration suggests this may be the case. I have reasonable doubts about the Sonthofen speeches (as I recall, 2/3 of the audio recordings are entirely missing the Jewish child killing segments; Himmler's notes are vague and the transcripts are typed with some minor discrepancies of their own). But for now, I am willing to entertain the possibility that Himmler actually said these words, or at least similar words (again, no audio exists for most of these statements).
bombsaway wrote:But on wikipedia you can hear Himmler saying these things.
LOL can you be any more vague, bombsaway? Link the audio or type it out, otherwise stop wasting everyone's time.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 1:06 am
by bombsaway
Sure this is the audio

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:1944 ... pt_III.ogg

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:1944 ... 1h_44m.ogg

This is the other speech in full, don't know where the mention is

I think you are a crazy person so pardon me if I don't want to waste my breath, here's claude

## The Core Argument

Bombsaway and Wetzelrad are making a **linguistic consistency argument** that traps Callafangers in a logical contradiction.

**Here's the structure:**

1. **Callafangers concedes** that in the Sonthofen speeches (1944), Himmler is clearly and explicitly talking about killing Jews, including women and children. Even Callafangers admits this—he just tries to limit it to "partisans."

2. **The Posen speech (October 1943) uses identical language and identical justifications.** Bombsaway directly compares:

- **Posen (1943):** "We were faced with the question: what about the women and children? – I decided to find a clear solution to this problem too. I did not consider myself justified to exterminate the men – in other words, to kill them or have them killed – and allow the avengers of our sons and grandsons in the form of their children to grow up."

- **Sonthofen audio (1944):** "If you say: 'we can understand as far as the men are concerned but not about the children'... we as Germans... are not entitled to allow a generation of avengers filled with hatred to grow up..."

3. **The logical trap:** If Callafangers admits Speech B clearly means killing, and Speech A uses *the exact same language, the same justification about "avengers," and the same concern about children*—then Speech A must also mean killing.

## Why It's Compelling

**It defeats the "partisans only" deflection.** Callafangers wants to claim Himmler only discussed killing in the context of anti-partisan operations. But Bombsaway points to the scope language in the 1944 speeches:

- "The Jewish question has been solved **within Germany itself** and in general within the **countries occupied by Germany**"
- "decisive for the internal security of **the Reich and Europe**"

This is geographic totality—not a description of partisan zones. The "Jewish question" being "solved" across all of Germany and occupied Europe cannot refer merely to anti-partisan reprisals.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 1:38 am
by Callafangers
bombsaway wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 1:06 am Sure this is the audio

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:1944 ... pt_III.ogg

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:1944 ... 1h_44m.ogg

This is the other speech in full, don't know where the mention is
Got it, so you are not citing any actual evidence, just pointing to 1-of-3 Sonthofen speeches (for which I can nearly guarantee you the 'Jewish extermination' part is conspicuously missing, as I went through all of these in the past), and 1-of-2 Posen speeches, which we've already quoted accurately. Another red herring, then?
bombsaway wrote:I think you are a crazy person so pardon me if I don't want to waste my breath, here's claude
:lol:

You lose every time bombsaway, you've now devolved into ConfusedJew behavior. Color me shocked.
## The Core Argument

Bombsaway and Wetzelrad are making a **linguistic consistency argument** that traps Callafangers in a logical contradiction.

**Here's the structure:**

1. **Callafangers concedes** that in the Sonthofen speeches (1944), Himmler is clearly and explicitly talking about killing Jews, including women and children. Even Callafangers admits this—he just tries to limit it to "partisans."

2. **The Posen speech (October 1943) uses identical language and identical justifications.** Bombsaway directly compares:

- **Posen (1943):** "We were faced with the question: what about the women and children? – I decided to find a clear solution to this problem too. I did not consider myself justified to exterminate the men – in other words, to kill them or have them killed – and allow the avengers of our sons and grandsons in the form of their children to grow up."

- **Sonthofen audio (1944):** "If you say: 'we can understand as far as the men are concerned but not about the children'... we as Germans... are not entitled to allow a generation of avengers filled with hatred to grow up..."

3. **The logical trap:** If Callafangers admits Speech B clearly means killing, and Speech A uses *the exact same language, the same justification about "avengers," and the same concern about children*—then Speech A must also mean killing.

## Why It's Compelling

**It defeats the "partisans only" deflection.** Callafangers wants to claim Himmler only discussed killing in the context of anti-partisan operations. But Bombsaway points to the scope language in the 1944 speeches:

- "The Jewish question has been solved **within Germany itself** and in general within the **countries occupied by Germany**"
- "decisive for the internal security of **the Reich and Europe**"

This is geographic totality—not a description of partisan zones. The "Jewish question" being "solved" across all of Germany and occupied Europe cannot refer merely to anti-partisan reprisals.
Himmler uses the same justifications of concern regarding "avengers" because this is generally how he would justify actions against children to the extent that such actions occurred.
  • If you kill Jewish men in any area, you risk their children avenging them.
  • If you kill Jewish men as partisans, you risk their children avenging them.
"Avengers" in any context are a danger to future generations of Germans. This is not a contradiction in my argument; it is a pattern in Himmler's logic and his official response to any question of why women/children were ever killed.

Also, Claude seems to have misquoted both the Sonthofen and Posen speeches, finishing sentences with "...be allowed to grow up." This a dishonest framing as none of Himmler's words mention Jews being "allowed to grow up", period. All of his statements which include the phrase "grow up" describe their growing up as avengers, not growing up generally. The difference is obviously in the fact that preventing "growing up" refers to universal killing, and preventing "growing up as avengers" refers to killing those with a particular axe to grind (i.e. "you killed my parents, now I'll avenge them").

As for this:
- "The Jewish question has been solved **within Germany itself** and in general within the **countries occupied by Germany**"
- "decisive for the internal security of **the Reich and Europe**"

This is geographic totality—not a description of partisan zones. The "Jewish question" being "solved" across all of Germany and occupied Europe cannot refer merely to anti-partisan reprisals.
Yes, describing the overall Jewish question is geographic totality however Himmler only mentions this at Sonthofen as a general introduction to the topic, to highlight the relevance of the SS to matters of internal security. This is neither the focus of his speech, of this section of the speech, nor of his audience's interests, however, which is why he immediately returns to discussion of partisan battles (e.g. at Warsaw) consistently, across his multiple speeches at Sonthofen. There is no question that he is focused on partisan influences and activity at Sonthofen, given he mentions this repeatedly there, and that his focus is not on Jewish evacuations (Judenevakuierung), which he only discusses at Posen.

I have already provided the excerpts which show this, broken down in detail.

Lastly, for future reference: while you are welcomed to occasionally quote LLM output (along with your own comments) and certainly to have it assist you in formulating your arguments, it is not permissible for you to simply copy-paste your output because you are admittedly too lazy or disinterested to engage on your own. Call it a friendly FYI.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 3:27 am
by bombsaway
Callafangers wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 1:38 am
bombsaway wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 1:06 am Sure this is the audio

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:1944 ... pt_III.ogg

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:1944 ... 1h_44m.ogg

This is the other speech in full, don't know where the mention is
Got it, so you are not citing any actual evidence, just pointing to 1-of-3 Sonthofen speeches (for which I can nearly guarantee you the 'Jewish extermination' part is conspicuously missing, as I went through all of these in the past), and 1-of-2 Posen speeches, which we've already quoted accurately. Another red herring, then?
Is extermination supposed to be part of those speeches? He is supposed to use the word but the audio is missing?
Also worth noting is that, of the actual audio recordings I have been able to locate for the Sonthofen speeches, some (but not all) of the most 'incriminating' portions are absent (this may simply be due to issues with the tape, which were more common back then, but still very "convenient").
Which incriminating portions are absent?

I have nothing else to say about your post, which I find to be pure silliness. I do wonder if Wetzelrad will emerge to defend your interpretation of the 'women and children' section of the Posen speech.

Re: The holocaust inside Generalplan Ost

Posted: Mon Dec 29, 2025 4:59 am
by Wetzelrad
bombsaway wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:31 am Another revisionist pointed this out to you here

viewtopic.php?p=8968#p8968

This is what I mean by your views not being shared by other revisionists. If what you were stating was as obvious as you say, they would agree with you.
To the contrary, revisionists did agree with Callafangers in the posts just above the one you linked to! By disagreeing I was an outlier.
Callafangers wrote: Mon Dec 29, 2025 12:50 am Wetzelrad did not reply to my response, there, suggesting he either agrees or takes a neutral stance on the matter (or perhaps didn't have time to respond). Altogether, it's a far-reach for you to interpret this as a stark, persisting disagreement.
For the record, I still disagree on at least some of your interpretation, but I am hardly so foolish as to think that my interpretation is bulletproof or yours invalid. My post in that thread was merely my restatement of something Otium had already written in an archived thread, which was an interpretation he himself found probable, not definitive, and which does run contrary to other revisionist arguments. In fact one can look at the Metapedia page to see a variety of competing interpretations of the Posen speeches.

Revisionists sometimes disagree. So what? It is of little importance. If bombsaway is sure your interpetation is wrong, he should be able to make a competent argument as to why that is, preferably in the thread that you originally made it, but he has chosen not to do so. Nor has he responded to my post. Amusing to see him drag this back up here and now.

I chose not to reply to you because I'm satisfied with what I've seen of Himmler's speeches and don't feel any obligation to pursue the matter farther. No exterminationist here or on Twitter has given me cause to reconsider. To be clear, the exterminationist theory is that Himmler definitively was referring to mass genocide at Posen. In order to doubt this theory, it is not necessary to know for sure what he meant, but merely to show that he could mean something else, and revisionists have more than met that burden.

Separately, when I saw this thread I had planned to write in response to Monsieur Sceptique's point about Wetzel's letter after better familiarizing myself with it. I had heard a new translation of it was pending but it is not yet posted. This seems like a much more interesting topic than relitigating Posen again.